(Not sure if this is the right place to ask. Please point out other forums if that's not the case).
I'm based in Europe, and I've set up an invoicing system for a client of ours which uses a tokenization system provided by his bank, as part of the bank's secure payment services. (In other words, this is not any of the big american services like Paypal, Braintree, Stripe...).
The problem is that, in order to input a credit card into the system, this bank needs to charge an initial amount of 0.01 € to it... and when it does that, the credit card owner gets a text message code to approve that charge, without which the card number cannot be introduced. This is not practical for my client, for a variety of reasons. We have asked the bank, and they say that this is all dependant on the card issuing bank, and they can't do anything about it.
My question is...: what do we do to avoid this? From what I remember, other tokenization system I've used also had an initial 0.01 cent charge, and yet I never received any text messages from them (this was a few years ago, admittedly, before 2FA became widespread). How do the big payment processors (Authorize.net, Stripe, etc.) manage to store credit cards without making an initial charge and triggering two-factor authentication in the process?
Thanks.