2

I have 3 situations I like to understand, but don't know the how to confirm or to test and analyse :(

In all case we use Internet Explorer Browser 9 application.

Situation 1:

<!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd">         
<meta http-equiv="X-UA-Compatible" content="IE=10" />
  • As you above see the HTML pages is set meta tag is set to content=10, but we use IE9 browser. What will happens? which metag is used? What if I set content=IE11 or contentXSSDDS in meta tag? So what's the fallback?

Situation 2:

<!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd">         
<meta http-equiv="X-UA-Compatible" content="IE=8" />

Here we use content=IE8, so does it mean IE9 features mentioned in http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ie/dn467846%28v=vs.85%29.aspx#changes_introduced_for__ie11 are not used? I need to look a the IE8 features right?

Situation 3:

If we use IE9 or IE10 browser and we set the doctype type <!doctype html> what doctype is then used in the HTML page? I mean what engine is it used. Will it use HTML 5? Does your content type also decide whether you can use new HTML 5 (elements or not) like etc.

correction after Jukka's right remark: Situation 1: Browser IE9 is used and in HTM pages meta tag: content="IE8" for 1 application Situation 2: Browser IE9 is used and in HTML pages meta tag: content="IE10" for another application

What will it do in situation 1: Will it use IE8 engine (features) and in situation 2...

For me it's not clear a browser version 9 is installed and you use content IE=10...??

ethem
  • 2,740
  • 9
  • 37
  • 57
  • There is no “doctype 10”, to begin with. The question is partly based on misunderstandings, partly formulated in a confused way that makes it impossible to see what the problems really are. Please read e.g. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/414891/what-is-doctype (it’s old, and the answers aren’t very good, but it’s still useful). Then try and formulate a question that reflects the practical problem you are facing. And don’t tag it with “javascript” unless your question is really about JavaScript. In tagging questions, less is more. – Jukka K. Korpela Jan 15 '15 at 14:42
  • @jukka: I think it exists please look a this site: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/6771258/whats-the-difference-if-meta-http-equiv-x-ua-compatible-content-ie-edge-e So the question is in fact, what happens if you define ie10 and you use browser app ie9. The reason why I put javascript is because, some javascript codes require IE11 or IE10 at least. – ethem Jan 15 '15 at 15:23
  • what you refer to here is about a `meta` tag. Not DOCTYPE. – Jukka K. Korpela Jan 15 '15 at 15:33
  • @jukka: Sorry jukka you're right I mixed the wording, but I re-edited my text above. I hope it's now more clear. in short Browser 9 is installed what happens if meta tag content is set to IE8 or IE10....???? not clear... – ethem Jan 15 '15 at 15:46
  • If you request a document mode (10) higher than the one available to the version of IE used to view the page (v9), you get the highest one available to that version of IE (IE8 or later). In this example, you'd get IE9 standards mode. If you ask for IE8 standards mode, you get the version of IE8 standards mode available to that version of the browser, meaning IE8 standards mode in IE8, IE9, IE10, and IE11, but IE7 standards mode in IE7 ('cause, y'know, it doesn't have IE8 standards mode). In IE6, you get whatever your doctype gives you. For the best in all recent versions, use `ie=edge`. – Lance Leonard Jan 18 '15 at 08:50
  • possible duplicate of [Does the X-UA Compatible http header actually work for IE9?](http://stackoverflow.com/questions/9788311/does-the-x-ua-compatible-http-header-actually-work-for-ie9) – Paul Sweatte May 01 '15 at 04:00

0 Answers0