This question states that π is normal:

Does Pi contain all possible number combinations?

My understanding of this is that it means that the statistically, the distribution of every number is equal across the infinite range.

If the numbering system is base π, wouldn't the number just be 1, so not normal, or does the definition *only* mean the bases that the number would be infinately non-repeating?

e.g π, in base π is 1 and not infinately non-repeating π in base 10 is infinately non-repeating

Let me summerise, does π base π = 1 mean that π isn't normal, or is π base π excluded from the definition because it in not infinately non-repeating?

Cheers

Dave