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Let $R$ and $S$ be commutative rings. Let $x, y$ be indeterminates, and assume that one has an isomorphism $R[x] \rightarrow S[y]$ (not necessarily mapping $x$ to $y$ of course). Does this imply $R \cong S$? If not, what is a counterexample?

This may seem like a homework problem, but is not.

Rankeya
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This was settled in the negative by M. Hochster in 1972. His paper can be found here.

Alex Becker
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