When playing with the complete elliptic integral of the first kind and its Fourier-Legendre expansion, I discovered that a consequence of $\sum_{n\geq 0}\binom{2n}{n}^2\frac{1}{16^n(4n+1)}=\frac{1}{16\pi^2}\,\Gamma\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)^4 $ is:

$$\int_{0}^{1}\frac{\arctan x}{\sqrt{x(1-x^2)}}\,dx = \tfrac{1}{32}\sqrt{2\pi}\,\Gamma\left(\tfrac{1}{4}\right)^2\tag{A}$$

which might be regarded as a sort of *Ahmed's integral under steroids*.

I already have a proof of this statement (through Fourier-Legendre expansions), but I would be happy to see a more direct and elementary proof of it, also because it might have some consequences about the moments of $K(x)$ of the form $\int_{0}^{1}K(x)\,x^{m\pm 1/4}\,dx$, which are associated with peculiar hypergeometric functions.