This is maybe a stupid question but I have to ask,
Is it correct that for all $d\in \mathbb N$ exists two numbers $a,b\in\mathbb Z$ such that $\text{gcd}(a,b)=d$?
I think that the answer is NO e.g let's take $d=0$
Am I correct?
This is maybe a stupid question but I have to ask,
Is it correct that for all $d\in \mathbb N$ exists two numbers $a,b\in\mathbb Z$ such that $\text{gcd}(a,b)=d$?
I think that the answer is NO e.g let's take $d=0$
Am I correct?
You are correct if $0 \in \Bbb N$ For all other numbers, there are.